 |
| Ooops.... |
....appears to be have been the essence of the agreement between Goldman Sachs and an Inland Revenue official according to this story. My question to A2 Contract Law students is: in principle, would you expect such an agreement to be legally binding? Why/why not? Which case does it remind you of?
Comments please!
No comments:
Post a Comment
Please keep comments appropriate and sensible! Thanks.